Member Login
Username
Password
Login
Contact Us
Register
Lost Password?
Log In
Welcome To BeliefCorner, the web's newest home for Religious Debate, Political Discussions, Spiritual Faith Forums and Web Discussion Boards
Search
Home
Forum
Links
T.O.C
Mission
Site Map
Home
Help
Search
Members
Login
Register
Welcome,
Guest
. Please
login
or
register
.
Did you miss your
activation email?
December 03, 2008, 02:04:37 AM
1 Hour
1 Day
1 Week
1 Month
Forever
Login with username, password and session length
Belief Corner
>
Christian-To-Christian Debate
>
Catholicism Debate
> Topic:
Why the devotion to Mary?
Pages:
1
2
[
3
]
« previous
next »
Add bookmark
|
Print
Author
Topic: Why the devotion to Mary? (Read 612 times)
Thorolf
Knight Who Says Ni!
Veteran
Faith: Christian
Posts: 2090
Ni!!
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #40 on:
November 14, 2007, 09:47:28 PM »
Quote from: johnnyjoe on November 14, 2007, 09:19:47 PM
Quote from: Thorolf on November 14, 2007, 09:46:17 AM
The problem, El, is that "tradition" is not supposed to evolve. The MOMENT it changes from what it was originally - in ANY form - it is no longer tradition......
If you can't GUARANTEE and PROVE that today's "tradition" is identical to the tradition taught by the Apostles, then it has absolutely no place being on the same level as scripture - which I would possibly even argue is the inspired, written, and unchanging record of the Apostolic Tradition.
And saying "yes it is" a thousand times is neither a guarantee or proof. The fact is that the passage from Timothy should be enough to call into question man's ability to adhere to tradition.
Let me understand what you are saying here. You are saying that scripture - surely a product of Tradition - is more trustworthy than Tradition because Tradition is changeable and scripture is not?
You are preferring the "concrete-ness" of scripture over the percieved vageries of Tradition?
Do I have that right?
More or less, yes.
I would say that what we call "scripture" today, at least in the "New Testament," is actually the transcribed Apostolic tradition, which needed to be transcribed because MEN kept changing it. I believe that this is why Paul wrote what he did to Timothy.
Look at it this way - take a class of 6-year olds, and write down a sentence. Put the kids in a big circle, and show the first one the sentence. Ask that child to whisper the sentence to his neighbor, and pass it around - and see how much it changes by the time it gets to the end. And yet, the sentence that was written down remains unchanged...
MEN make mistakes - in memory, in hearing, and in adding their own opinions to what has been passed to them. There is no denying that this was already happening during Paul's time. But by writing down what that tradition was, we have a much more reliable record of what the Apostles said and did.
So, yes... the Bible is more reliable than tradition because 2000 years of flawed men have much less impact on it.
The word naive was used earlier - what is more naive? To believe that the recorded words of the Apostles themselves is an accurate and sufficient record and to default to that text, or to believe that 2000 years of men would and could not have effected significant change to what was told to their ancestors?
Logged
They were forced to eat Robin's minstrels... and there was much rejoicing. Yay.
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #41 on:
November 15, 2007, 10:56:30 AM »
Johnny,
The Trinity is "extra-biblical", and is a widely held belief among many Christians.
And the doctrine of the Trinity is a perfect example of when people add novel concepts to the scriptures. If Christianity were a science, the trinitarian doctrine would be a theory. It is designed to describe and explain certain events, but it does a bit of hypothesizing.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #42 on:
November 15, 2007, 10:58:01 AM »
I think a congratulations is in order. I just became the first jr member of BeliefCorner!
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Thorolf
Knight Who Says Ni!
Veteran
Faith: Christian
Posts: 2090
Ni!!
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #43 on:
November 16, 2007, 12:00:32 PM »
Quote from: Elluminati on November 16, 2007, 09:12:14 AM
The point is, the bible is clear that tradition is important, the point Paul had tried to make very early on is that it only matters
whose
tradition is followed. All in which makes the Catholic claim of Apostolic authority that much more reasonable and important (absolutely necessary) in Christian history. How did anyone know that "Paul's" letters were not only his but, authoritative? Hmmmm?
Yes, tradition is important - but my point is that what you call tradition and what I would call tradition are not necessarily the same thing. Catholic (big C) authority doesn't enter in, quite frankly. WHO makes changes after the fact is irrelevant, regardless what claim they may have to some myth of authority or a line of succession.
Quote
But out of the hundreds if not thousands of letters floating around the time, how and
who
decided that they were reliable?
Jesus? Are you suggesting that flawed men are solely responsible for the selection of the books that were included in the Bible? I don't particularly care what they called themselves - I believe that they could only have done the job if God was the project leader. MEN, no matter whether they used a capital C or a lower-case one, would have screwed it up.
Quote
And who exactly was responsible for maintaining the integrety of the "traditions" of the Apostles? The letters? Did the letters maintain their own integrity without the help of Apostolic authority, and who had the "Apostolic" authority to "urge the early Christians" after all the apostles had past on?
See above. I don't care who they were. God can use anybody, even the apostate, if He so chooses.
Quote
No it's not different, your interpretation is, hence the protestant movement. As I stated before, since the incarnation of the Son there is nothing new under the sun, only a deeper understanding of what was revealed, and this will continue until the day of our Lord's return. "We see through a glass darkly," and the original Apostles did not know everything either, this is proved by the disagreements amongst themselves. So while we still don't know everything today, we continue to grow in knowledge and faith as it pertains to the teachings of Christ. This is all very evident to someone who is willing to openly look at the evidence without preconceptions, which I was a victim of myself.
Au contraire... there may not be anything new under the sun, but a "deeper" understanding is hardly the only remaining option. While I agree that no many knows everything, I'm not sure I agree that we really know any more today than we did in the Apostolic age, though, and we very well may know less. Oh, we THINK we know more... but do we really? As for preconceptions - bwahahahahahahaha!!! We can discuss this in another thread, if you really want to, in spite of the ad hominem nature of the statement. It doesn't have a place here, though.
Quote
As you can see, that is simply not the case.
Where? I must have missed it. I did catch something about preconceptions, though. Maybe I was blinded by the statement that seemed to be accusing me of missing what is "very evident" because I don't accept that the Catholic church (big C) has any special insider information about the nature of God.
Quote
Not at all, I am saying that God has and always will use "flawed" men to pass on His unflawed Word.....
And that's what I am saying, too! Hallelujah!
Quote
i.e. Papal and Magisterial infallibility.
Well, no... not really.
So, anyway... the devotion to Mary...
Logged
They were forced to eat Robin's minstrels... and there was much rejoicing. Yay.
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #44 on:
November 16, 2007, 07:24:56 PM »
El,
How did anyone know that "Paul's" letters were not only his but, authoritative? Hmmmm?
First, let me start by saying that none of us "know" that the letters attributed to Paul are truly his. The best we can do is do some careful research.
Second, if I had to take a wild stab at it, I would say that Paul had a unique writing style recognizable by the literate members of the earlier churches. For instance, Paul says in Gal 6:11, that he used large letters to write to them with his own hand. People who were familiar with his writing would be able to recognize its originality from the choice of his words to the way he forms individual letters of the Greek alphabet. Even the letters he dictated to a scribe would be authenticated by a familiar mode of communication, something that earmarked his personality.
Third, Paul probably sent a familiar mail carrier, someone the churches recognized.
And fourth, there would be no good reason to forge his epistles early on in the ministry. It wouldn't be until Paul was more of a household name that it would be advantageous for someone to forge his work, and by that time, the early churches had a fairly good idea, based upon common circulation and style, what epistles were truly his. Imagine introducing a letter after Paul's death, supposedly written by Paul, that wasn't yet circulated throughout the churches? It would be spotted as a fraud instantly unless it beared a very strong reflection of his style.
But out of the hundreds if not thousands of letters floating around the time, how and who decided that they were reliable?
It doesn't really matter who decided, but rather they are in fact reliable. The fact that Catholics officially recognized what books were divinely inspired doesn't render them any more reliable without the authentication. You catholics are so stuck on yourselves for cannonizing the bible (a process based upon the basic recognition of what was commonly circulated), and yet I see no glory given to God for His guidance in the process -- it seems like it's always about the Catholic church.
And who exactly was responsible for maintaining the integrety of the "traditions" of the Apostles? The letters? Did the letters maintain their own integrity without the help of Apostolic authority, and who had the "Apostolic" authority to "urge the early Christians" after all the apostles had past on?
There you go again. What humility is there in statements like "Look what we did." "Look at our leader, Christ's vicar on earth." "Our leader can't make mistakes in matters of spirituality and doctrine." Where is God's glory in all of this? We Protestants believe that God can use anyone to preserve His message of truth -- look how He used the witch of Endor to deliver a message to King Saul. Men aren't perfect; we all see the same things differently, and yet God still chose us to carry a crucially important message of salvation to the world. Peter, with all of his human flaws including betrayal, opened the door to the kingdom of God for the world.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #45 on:
November 16, 2007, 08:39:34 PM »
Weren't we talking about Mary?
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
johnnyjoe
New Member
Posts: 10
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #46 on:
November 17, 2007, 08:17:08 AM »
Quote from: Acumen on November 16, 2007, 08:39:34 PM
Weren't we talking about Mary?
I can see that the core of the confusion about Mary does come from a real question posited above about the Authority of the Catholic Church to speak definitively on matters theological.
Let me add that EVERY dispute with a Marian Dogma ends in a Christological Heresy, for all that the Church teaches about Mary is a direct reflection of what she knows about Christ. Mary is the moon to Christ as the Sun. What is Holy in and about the Son is reflected and seen as what is Holy and admirable in the Mother of the Son.
Let me offer an example.
If Mary was born into sin, meaning she was not Immaculately Concieved, then Christ is something a little less than God Incarnate, because God could not exist WITHIN the veil of human flesh under the cloud of original sin. That is, since baptism was not yet instituted, God would have had to grow up inside a womb subject to sin. God indwelling within Sin. Thus, if Mary was merely a sinful human, Jesus Christ was merely a human subject to sin as well. IF Jesus was like man in all things but sin, as scripture tells us, then EITHER he indwellt in a sinless womb, or he was a mere man who did sin. Cristological Heresy....
Logged
Christianity has never been tried and found wanting, it has been found difficult and left untried.
G.K. Chesterton
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #47 on:
November 17, 2007, 11:16:41 AM »
Johnny,
I can see that the core of the confusion about Mary does come from a real question posited above about the Authority of the Catholic Church to speak definitively on matters theological.
I agree. And that's why we need to hammer out the authority issue a little better.
Let me add that EVERY dispute with a Marian Dogma ends in a Christological Heresy,
Right, but to a protestant, the term "heresy" is just another way of saying "the Catholic church disagrees." It doesn't carry the same sort of stigma with us.
If Mary was born into sin, meaning she was not Immaculately Concieved, then Christ is something a little less than God Incarnate, because God could not exist WITHIN the veil of human flesh under the cloud of original sin.
That being said, I don't see the logical necessity of immaculate conception. Presumably, Mary's mother was born into sin; so if Mary was immaculately conceived from a sinful mother, then why not Jesus? Jesus still came from an ancestory of sin, that's part of what makes him human, and in essence the reason why he is the necessary consequence of our nature and free will. If we pursue this issue much further, we will eventually get into the Catholic doctrine of original sin, which is not something I consider an evident doctrine.
That is, since baptism was not yet instituted, God would have had to grow up inside a womb subject to sin. God indwelling within Sin.
Then how exactly does God fill us with the Holy Spirit if He cannot indwell a sinful body?
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Thorolf
Knight Who Says Ni!
Veteran
Faith: Christian
Posts: 2090
Ni!!
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #48 on:
November 17, 2007, 11:57:03 PM »
Quote from: johnnyjoe on November 17, 2007, 08:17:08 AM
I can see that the core of the confusion about Mary does come from a real question posited above about the Authority of the Catholic Church to speak definitively on matters theological.
This really needs to be a different thread... someone should start one about authority. That said, I'll note only that an underling to whom I may delegate a particular responsibility does not suddenly become the boss - or even my personal "right hand man." The authority argument is an interesting enough one, but hardly the core of the issue surrounding the devotion to Mary.
Quote
Let me add that EVERY dispute with a Marian Dogma ends in a Christological Heresy, for all that the Church teaches about Mary is a direct reflection of what she knows about Christ. Mary is the moon to Christ as the Sun. What is Holy in and about the Son is reflected and seen as what is Holy and admirable in the Mother of the Son.
Very poetic. Meaningless and utterly unsupportable, but poetic.
Quote
Let me offer an example.
If Mary was born into sin, meaning she was not Immaculately Concieved, then Christ is something a little less than God Incarnate, because God could not exist WITHIN the veil of human flesh under the cloud of original sin. That is, since baptism was not yet instituted, God would have had to grow up inside a womb subject to sin. God indwelling within Sin. Thus, if Mary was merely a sinful human, Jesus Christ was merely a human subject to sin as well. IF Jesus was like man in all things but sin, as scripture tells us, then EITHER he indwellt in a sinless womb, or he was a mere man who did sin. Cristological Heresy....
I would submit that you perhaps should research the Catholic dogma on the subject a bit better, because as I understand it - it doesn't contend by any stretch of the imagination that Mary was of immaculate birth. Furthermore, the dogma surrounding the birth of Jesus does NOT boil down to the choice you presented.
Perhaps you were intentionally giving two theologically weak choices?
Logged
They were forced to eat Robin's minstrels... and there was much rejoicing. Yay.
johnnyjoe
New Member
Posts: 10
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #49 on:
November 18, 2007, 03:27:07 PM »
Johnny,
Right, but to a protestant, the term "heresy" is just another way of saying "the Catholic church disagrees." It doesn't carry the same sort of stigma with us.
Which is why there are so many sects in protestantism. There is not even any unity regarding the actual divinity and humanity of Christ! A little stigma and shame would go a long way toward bending
the will of the “sliding scale confession” christian into a deeper understanding of Who Christ really was, and what that means to being authentically human.
Let me make my point by the posts you have below....
I wrote:
“If Mary was born into sin, meaning she was not Immaculately Concieved, then Christ is something a little less than God Incarnate, because God could not exist WITHIN the veil of human flesh under the cloud of original sin.”
your response:
That being said, I don't see the logical necessity of immaculate conception. Presumably, Mary's mother was born into sin; so if Mary was immaculately conceived from a sinful mother, then why not Jesus?
So you miss my point. If you say Jesus was immaculately conceived, then you offer by presumption that his sinful humanity had to be “corrected” at conception, when in fact, he was Fully God and Fully Man from the moment of Conception. That is something strikingly different than an immaculate conception. He CAN NOT be sin, and HE cannot be God indwelling within Sin. Since Mary was “only human”, she must - by the necessity of the Holiness of Her Son - be a pure and sinless human.
If you believe Christ to be God, and the Holy Spirit to be God and the Father to be God; then Jesus made His own Mother, no? He, as the Holy Spirit, breathed life into St. Anne’s womb, and saved Mary from sin at that moment. Why? Because as the perfection of man, He needed to be born fully human from the perfection of woman. ALL of His humanity came from Mary. Every cell, every hair, every wrinkle, even the DNA. This had to be HIs plan from the dawn of time, wouldn’t it?
Since Jesus Christ is the SOURCE of all salvation, and since Mary had be the highest form of human purity to be a worthy vessel for God Incarnate, then by His own logic, she had to be free of the stain of original sin.
To presume he would just “use” Mary is to deny the generosity and charity of His Love, and to have God USE His creatures like chattel. And yet scripture reveals God letting humans be fully FREE - to the point of their own self destruction if they wish. In addition, He
asked
her to be His Mother. She had to give her permission. Do you ask someone’s permission to “use” them?
No, I think if you look at the circumstances with CHRIST as pure God and Pure Man - then His Mother had to be the highest attainable human perfection.
Jesus still came from an ancestry of sin, that's part of what makes him human, and in essence the reason why he is the necessary consequence of our nature and free will.
Now I had to read that twice.... Jesus - God made Man - cannot have an “ancestry of sin”. As an Israelite, he can claim membership in God’s chosen people, but to claim Christ “sin inclined” if you will, because of original sin, takes you logically into a denial of the Divinity of Christ.
If we pursue this issue much further, we will eventually get into the Catholic doctrine of original sin, which is not something I consider an evident doctrine.
Well, THAT certainly has another thread written all over it. Let me offer a small observation. If you deny Original Sin, you deny the veracity of Genesis, God’s first contact with humanity, and you deny the need for a Savior. That again, is a Christological Heresy - Jesus as God is not divine.
I said:
“That is, since baptism was not yet instituted, God would have had to grow up inside a womb subject to sin. God indwelling within Sin.”
You said:
Then how exactly does God fill us with the Holy Spirit if He cannot indwell a sinful body?
Via Baptism - adoption into the Family of God.
Ironically, you point out another quality of the Blessed Mother. NO ONE else in the bible is declared, “Full of Grace”. She was found suitable - without Baptism - to be a worthy vessel for the Holy Spirit to come into her and Divinely Impregnate her. As she was immaculately conceived, she was a Daughter of the Father, as she was worthy of the Holy Spirit “Overshadowing” her, she was the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, and at the Holy Conception, she became the Mother of the Son.
That my friend, is One Holy Woman....
Logged
Christianity has never been tried and found wanting, it has been found difficult and left untried.
G.K. Chesterton
johnnyjoe
New Member
Posts: 10
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #50 on:
November 18, 2007, 03:39:45 PM »
Quote from: Thorolf on November 17, 2007, 11:57:03 PM
"Let me add that EVERY dispute with a Marian Dogma ends in a Christological Heresy, for all that the Church teaches about Mary is a direct reflection of what she knows about Christ. Mary is the moon to Christ as the Sun. What is Holy in and about the Son is reflected and seen as what is Holy and admirable in the Mother of the Son."
Quote
Very poetic. Meaningless and utterly unsupportable, but poetic.
Thank you!
"If Mary was born into sin, meaning she was not Immaculately Concieved, then Christ is something a little less than God Incarnate, because God could not exist WITHIN the veil of human flesh under the cloud of original sin. That is, since baptism was not yet instituted, God would have had to grow up inside a womb subject to sin. God indwelling within Sin. Thus, if Mary was merely a sinful human, Jesus Christ was merely a human subject to sin as well. IF Jesus was like man in all things but sin, as scripture tells us, then EITHER he indwellt in a sinless womb, or he was a mere man who did sin. Cristological Heresy...."
Quote
I would submit that you perhaps should research the Catholic dogma on the subject a bit better, because as I understand it - it doesn't contend by any stretch of the imagination that Mary was of immaculate birth. Furthermore, the dogma surrounding the birth of Jesus does NOT boil down to the choice you presented.
Perhaps you were intentionally giving two theologically weak choices?
In the Constitution Ineffabilis Deus of 8 December, 1854, Pius IX pronounced and defined that the Blessed Virgin Mary "in the first instance of her conception, by a singular privilege and grace granted by God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved exempt from all stain of original sin."
From:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07674d.htm
Heck, even Wikipedia knows catholic dogma:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Immaculate_Conception
Logged
Christianity has never been tried and found wanting, it has been found difficult and left untried.
G.K. Chesterton
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #51 on:
November 18, 2007, 06:26:06 PM »
Johnny,
Which is why there are so many sects in protestantism. There is not even any unity regarding the actual divinity and humanity of Christ! A little stigma and shame would go a long way toward bending
the will of the “sliding scale confession” christian into a deeper understanding of Who Christ really was
Please don't pretend like the Catholic church has doctrinal unity. I can't tell you how many Catholics I've run into who believe that the Holy Spirit is a dove or couldn't give one coherent statement of the holy trinity if their lives depended upon it. And you want to talk about a deeper understanding? Let's not sling mud.
So you miss my point. If you say Jesus was immaculately conceived, then you offer by presumption that his sinful humanity had to be “corrected” at conception, when in fact, he was Fully God and Fully Man from the moment of Conception.
I'm making no such presumption. I find no reason to believe in original sin, and therefore believe there is no sin to transmit from the present to the next generation. Essentially, there is nothing to correct. I was merely humoring the notion of immaculate conception for the sake of argument.
Given the presumption that sin is transmitted from generation to generation, immaculate conception isn't the only philosophical answer to the problem. God has the power to regenerate the soul just as we are born again, wiped clean of our sins. To me, it makes no difference if the soul was created without sin or purged from it, sinless in sinless.
Since Jesus Christ is the SOURCE of all salvation, and since Mary had be the highest form of human purity to be a worthy vessel for God Incarnate, then by His own logic, she had to be free of the stain of original sin.
Why? Why couldn't she have been wiped clean from sin prior to conception? Also, in order for your philosophy to truly work, Mary would have to remain sinless up until the point of Jesus' conception, which isn't feasible when considered. It's not feasible because if Mary could be sinless, then why not everyone else? In fact, if Mary was sinless, then she wouldn't need the savior. There are all sorts of problems with this sort of thinking.
To presume he would just “use” Mary is to deny the generosity and charity of His Love, and to have God USE His creatures like chattel. And yet scripture reveals God letting humans be fully FREE - to the point of their own self destruction if they wish. In addition, He asked her to be His Mother. She had to give her permission. Do you ask someone’s permission to “use” them?
I'm not sure what you're talking about here.
No, I think if you look at the circumstances with CHRIST as pure God and Pure Man - then His Mother had to be the highest attainable human perfection.
"Highest attainable human perfection?" Are you saying that Mary was perfect, or just without sin?
Well, THAT certainly has another thread written all over it. Let me offer a small observation. If you deny Original Sin, you deny the veracity of Genesis, God’s first contact with humanity, and you deny the need for a Savior. That again, is a Christological Heresy - Jesus as God is not divine.
First, I said that the doctrine of original sin is not evident. This would mean that I don't see it explicitly in the bible, including the book of Genesis. And second, denying original sin doesn't mean there is no sin in the world. Our free will is perfectly capable of contracting sin without the logical need for it to be transmitted through birth.
Ironically, you point out another quality of the Blessed Mother. NO ONE else in the bible is declared, “Full of Grace”.
And Paul says that God can fill us with the fulness of the Godhead, does that make us God?
She was found suitable - without Baptism - to be a worthy vessel for the Holy Spirit to come into her and Divinely Impregnate her.
Well, that's because baptism didn't have regenerational power prior to Christ's resurrection. You can't put the cart before the horse.
As she was immaculately conceived, she was a Daughter of the Father, as she was worthy of the Holy Spirit “Overshadowing” her, she was the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, and at the Holy Conception, she became the Mother of the Son.
Let me tell you something -- we don't deserve to be filled with the Holy Ghost, and yet by God's grace, we are. Maybe Mary was full of grace BECAUSE God chose her. And she wasn't worthy of the Holy Spirit to overshadow her just like we're not worthy to be filled with the Holy Ghost. But God chose her nontheless, and for that we are all greatful.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #52 on:
November 18, 2007, 08:05:48 PM »
El,
Johnny,
Acumen
:
Please don't pretend like the Catholic church has doctrinal unity. I can't tell you how many Catholics I've run into who believe that the Holy Spirit is a dove or couldn't give one coherent statement of the holy trinity if their lives depended upon it. And you want to talk about a deeper understanding? Let's not sling mud.
El
:
Reread what you just wrote, in the first part of your claim... that the "Catholic Church" doesn't have doctrinal unity and then you try to prove it by referring to "Catholics" which I am assuming are individual people. The "Catholic Church" you must remember is an entity both with individual members and an entity in it's own right.
And that doesn't matter one bit. Disunity is only important as it refers to people.
Unlike the non-Catholic view of a "mystical body of believers" that without them there would be no church, the "Catholic Church" would be and is "the Church" regardless of it's members.
You're kidding right? Without members, all you have is a building.
So, you are totally incorrect in your assertion that the Catholic Church does not have doctrinal unity.
And I have no idea how this follows from your premises.
The reason you folks have such a problem with so many Catholic doctrines is because you focus on specific passages for a much broader subject.
Of course, we couldn't possibly have a problem with it because the Catholic chuch made mistakes in her teachings. What was I thinking? My bad.
Mary was given the same sinless nature and preternatural (out of the ordinary course of nature; exceptional) gifts as Adam and Eve, they were just as capable of living a sinless life as Mary was, she chose to say yes to God (mary's fiat) while the first Eve decided to say no.
And Mary's sinless life is supported by what passage of scripture?
The typology of Mary in the accounts of Eve are evident with a little perspective.
I'm sorry, where is Mary compared to Eve in the bible? Did Paul compare them, or did I miss it somewhere? Again, I'm at work, and I don't have access to any biblical resources.
He is referring to the constant belittling of the Mother of God Jesus to the role of incubator, the all loving God of the universe would never do such a thing.
Then he is not debating with me, because I made no such reference.
How about being able to explicitly see it in the real world. Original sin is as obvious as the last time you sinned knowingly, every person because of the stain of original sin is helpless to the temptation of sin at one point or another, over and over again throughout their life.
How do you explain the temptation of Eve to sin in the garden? Satan's words of enticement wouldn't have meant much if he couldn't appeal to Eve's sense of ego and sinful lust for power. No original sin, and yet Eve had a craving for sin.
And the Bible says that this sin came through birth, so not to sure why you would deny that.
And that can mean a lot of things, including bad habits passed from father to son.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #53 on:
November 18, 2007, 10:15:42 PM »
El,
Acumen
:
And that doesn't matter one bit. Disunity is only important as it refers to people.
El
:
No, you will not find any contradictory official teachings in the Church of Rome. It does not matter what people say, even if they claim to be Catholic.
How does this address my statement?
Acumen
:
You're kidding right? Without members, all you have is a building.
El
:
Unlike the protestant communities, the Catholic Church, headed by Christ Himself, is not dependent upon individual "members" especially dissenting ones. That's why in the Mass we pray to God to not look on our sins but, on the faith of His Church. The greek word kecharitoomenee literally means Full of Grace "Especially the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life; including gratitude"
To be "Full" of God's grace could mean nothing else but to be without sin.
So now divine influence means sinlessness?
Acumen
:
How do you explain the temptation of Eve to sin in the garden? Satan's words of enticement wouldn't have meant much if he couldn't appeal to Eve's sense of ego and sinful lust for power. No original sin, and yet Eve had a craving for sin.
El
:
Now who is adding words to the scriptures? Where does it say that Eve had a "lust for power?" Eve indeed fell into pride but it was not because of a sinful compulsion, it was a direct act of disobedience, which makes her crime worse an thus the reason the rest of mankind shares such a greivous consequence.
No, actually it was a lust for power just like I said. Satan told eve if she ate of the fruit, she would become like God, knowing good from evil. He appealed to her craving for more power. It's not like she made her choice on the flip of a coin, El. The devil knew her weakness, and he exploited it. God put Adam and Eve in a garden with parameters and rules. There were limitations, and Eve had a desire to extend the boundaries of those limitations. That, my dear cousin, is a lust for power.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
johnnyjoe
New Member
Posts: 10
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #54 on:
November 19, 2007, 08:42:15 AM »
Quote
How do you explain the temptation of Eve to sin in the garden? Satan's words of enticement wouldn't have meant much if he couldn't appeal to Eve's sense of ego and sinful lust for power. No original sin, and yet Eve had a craving for sin.
Eve was merely tempted, and that temptation was the result of Adam’s silence. He knew that creature walking in the garden was not something he had named, and yet he stood silent and allowed the beast to tempt his wife. Adam’s silence was the greater sin, and our culture is rife with men standing silent while women are tempted and attacked by satan.
To claim pride as a “craving for sin” is to impune upon creation a discolor of divine error that twists the fault of the fall from the created to the creator. Eve still had free will. She still could have chosen to say no. Adam still could have stepped in at any time, called upon God, and driven the serpent from the garden. And yet he remained silent in the face of evil.
And so men continue today....
Logged
Christianity has never been tried and found wanting, it has been found difficult and left untried.
G.K. Chesterton
gracebyfaith
Full Member
Posts: 116
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #55 on:
November 19, 2007, 11:05:27 AM »
I'm sorry, this debate is extremely frustrating, because the catholics debating
(Johnny and El) keep claiming as fact their catholic doctrines. We have
Scripture to say Jesus was sinless. El's full of grace Scripture still does
NOT say Mary was sinless.
It's hard to read EVERY word of the catholics' debate, because there are
so many false assumptions and theories passed on as fact, and then they
build a whole/looooong argument on it - that is frustrating and hard to read
when I decided right at the start it was unfounded. PLEEEEEASE GIVE SOME
SCRIPTURE for Mary's sinless/emmaculate conception, and it would be much
easier to keep your audience - and maybe even convince some of us to
believe your dogma. I still have heard nothing of Scripture (except El's
stretch of full of grace) to establish this dogma - that is supposedly infallible.
THIS IS WHY I AM TURNED OFF BY CATHOLIC DOCTRINE - where is the
Scripture ("Where's the beef?"
)
I don't much care about the doctrines found in Rome, when catholic leaders
in America are debating over what happens in their own parishes. That
sounds like division to me, El. Who cares if you have one leader who thinks
his doctrine is infallible and united, when his churches are not following and
yes doing their own thing. The "church" of God is absolutely a body of believers -
there are plenty of Scriptures to go to for this doctrine. Again, I think it's a
convenient dogma to believe the Catholic church is the church regardless of
it's people. I, too, agree you have an empty building. Jesus didn't come to
fill temples made with hands! Too many convenient doctrines. I promise
I'm not trying to be mean in this - I just don't see how people can believe
teaching that don't have Scripture to build on.
I'm not trying to be sarcastic, but the last post from Johnny was the worst
yet. So WHERE did you get the story of Adam allowing Eve to be tempted.
Since when is temptation allowed by another person. The Scripture says
"every man" (individually) is tempted when he is drawn away by his own lust
and enticed. Eve didn't blame Adam for her sin, on the contrary Adam did
try to blame her. The last I read the Genesis account, Eve sinned at her
own volition and then passed the fruit on to Adam. Again, I'm not trying
to be mean, but if you're going to quote from some encyclopedia - skip it.
Give me Scripture/Truth!
Ac, please down load some Bible program on your laptop.
Logged
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #56 on:
November 19, 2007, 12:15:39 PM »
I think you need to reread the account, it's pretty clear cut
Yes, it is. Here is the passage:
Gen 3:6
When the woman saw that the fruit of the tree was good for food and pleasing to the eye, and also
desirable for gaining wisdom
, she took some and ate it.
Why did Eve desire wisdom/knowledge at the expense of her Creator, especially since Satan painted the picture of her being like a god if she were to eat of it? Say it with me, El. It's a craving for power. She was already created with a propensity of selfishness.
When God confronted Adam about his sin, he blamed Eve. Again, more selfishness. We don't need the Catholic doctrine of original sin to explain why we're all selfish and sinful, free will can do that all by itself. Yes, it's the account is pretty clear cut, perhaps you should read it too?
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #57 on:
November 19, 2007, 12:30:46 PM »
El,
No, being "full" of God's grace does.
Again, show me why "full of grace" is supposed to mean sinless, when believers are filled with the Holy Spirt, and yet aren't sinless?
I see no where in the account where it states that the serpent appealed to her "craving for more power." Where does it state that?
The passage says that Eve had a desire for more wisdom. The desire was there, the passage says it. Logically, there would be no reason for her to risk her life unless she thought there would be some payout for her disobedience. She chose herself over God at the risk of her own life. There would be no reason to do this if she weren't selfish.
And exactly where does it say that he "knew her weakness?
The passage says that the serpent was more crafty than the other creatures. What is the purpose of mentioning this point, if it didn't play a role in tricking Eve? In order to trick someone, you must know at least one weakness, namely lack of knowledge.
Where exactly does it say that Eve had a "desire to extend the boundaries of those limitations?"
Hmmm . . . perhaps when she ate the fruit, thus extending her boundaries of good an evil? I think that Catholics should spend more time reading the bible, rather than asking questions to those who read it.
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Acumen
Veteran
Faith: Protestant
Posts: 3502
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #58 on:
November 19, 2007, 12:49:12 PM »
Johnny,
Eve was merely tempted, and that temptation was the result of Adam’s silence. He knew that creature walking in the garden was not something he had named, and yet he stood silent and allowed the beast to tempt his wife. Adam’s silence was the greater sin, and our culture is rife with men standing silent while women are tempted and attacked by satan.
That's an interesting point.
To claim pride as a “craving for sin” is to impune upon creation a discolor of divine error that twists the fault of the fall from the created to the creator.
A few things here: first, the account of Gen 3 is fairly clear that Eve had already possessed a predisposition for satisfying her cravings. The fruit was both "
pleasing to the eye
" and "
good for food
". In other words, she was tempted by her desire.
Second, she had a predisposition to increase her abilities. The narrative said that she desired the fruit for gaining wisdom. Why would she ever suppose that fruit could give her wisdom unless she believed the serpent when it said, "
God knows that when you eat of it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil
"? She was selfish. She risked her life for power.
Third, I wouldn't characterize our propensity for sin as an divine error. Without the craving for good and evil, our will to choose isn't really free. And without free will, we have no way of freely choosing love, which is the ultimate good, is it not?
And fourth, why would the Creator be at fault when we have free-will?
-Acumen
Logged
The end of argument or discussion should be, not victory, but enlightenme
Thorolf
Knight Who Says Ni!
Veteran
Faith: Christian
Posts: 2090
Ni!!
Re: Why the devotion to Mary?
«
Reply #59 on:
November 19, 2007, 05:47:53 PM »
Quote from: Elluminati on November 18, 2007, 08:17:38 AM
Sorry Thor I couldn't let that opportunity slip by with out a jab...
Point taken... it's true that some 1800 years after Christ it was determined that Mary was immaculately conceived - although in my defense I had assumed you were talking about immaculate conception in the way Jesus was immaculately conceived - without a human father.
My bad on the assumption, although the dogma is hardly anything approaching a supportable claim. The Catholic Encyclopedia even acknowledges that it's not scripturally defensible, and that many of the Church "fathers" were "WRONG" on the matter.
That, I must admit, was a very interesting statement to read. It was also interesting to read the statement, also in the Catholic Encyclopedia, that Tradition is an "ongoing process."
Logged
They were forced to eat Robin's minstrels... and there was much rejoicing. Yay.